As seen in the question. I have to find the value of IRef. Here's what I have so far :
For BJT Q2 , we want Ic=1.5mA. Since the gain is 100 , Ib would be 15μA.
For BJT Q1, it can be seen that the Collector is shorted to the base. Therefore Vc=Vb , and Ve (Emitter Voltage ) =0.
Assuming Vbe=0.7 , Vb = Vb-Ve = 0.7 -0 = 0.7. It can also be seen that IRef = IC1.
Here's where I get stuck. Since the collector is directly shorted to the base. It could be said the Ic=IB1 + IB2. IB1 can then be expressed in terms of Ic and the value of Ic can then be solved. However this value of Ic obtained is not correct. Is there something I'm doing wrong? I think for this question I'm having problems visualising the current flow for Q1 and Q2.
Thank you.
For BJT Q2 , we want Ic=1.5mA. Since the gain is 100 , Ib would be 15μA.
For BJT Q1, it can be seen that the Collector is shorted to the base. Therefore Vc=Vb , and Ve (Emitter Voltage ) =0.
Assuming Vbe=0.7 , Vb = Vb-Ve = 0.7 -0 = 0.7. It can also be seen that IRef = IC1.
Here's where I get stuck. Since the collector is directly shorted to the base. It could be said the Ic=IB1 + IB2. IB1 can then be expressed in terms of Ic and the value of Ic can then be solved. However this value of Ic obtained is not correct. Is there something I'm doing wrong? I think for this question I'm having problems visualising the current flow for Q1 and Q2.
Thank you.
