M
Michael
- Jan 1, 1970
- 0
Hi All,
I am reading ahead for a microfab class I am taking in January and I've
noticed alot of the literature publishes graphs that characterize a given
phenomenon as a dependency on temperature and thus the x-axis is scaled in
inverse temperature like 1000/K (K^-1). In some cases the top of the graph
is scaled in ascending Celsius to assist in the graphs interpretation.
However my primary question why do the authors use inverse temperature
rather simply scaling the x-axis using Celsius or Kelvin directly?
I read some brief blurb on the Internet that inverse or reciprocal
temperature is more meaningful than its counterpart. But why?
Any info is always appreciated.
--Michael
I am reading ahead for a microfab class I am taking in January and I've
noticed alot of the literature publishes graphs that characterize a given
phenomenon as a dependency on temperature and thus the x-axis is scaled in
inverse temperature like 1000/K (K^-1). In some cases the top of the graph
is scaled in ascending Celsius to assist in the graphs interpretation.
However my primary question why do the authors use inverse temperature
rather simply scaling the x-axis using Celsius or Kelvin directly?
I read some brief blurb on the Internet that inverse or reciprocal
temperature is more meaningful than its counterpart. But why?
Any info is always appreciated.
--Michael