wannabegeek
- Aug 17, 2011
- 133
- Joined
- Aug 17, 2011
- Messages
- 133
since the electrons are lined up in such a way to create a more negative and more positive side (poles),
no, the electrons are not lined up ....the magnet dipoles are...common mistake.
since the electrons are lined up in such a way to create a more negative and more positive side (poles),
Also my thinking is that since magnetic fields induce electric fields, which is the voltage, it makes sense to me that a magnet would allow charge to flow more or less easily.
I guess I did not make it clear. I was showing how it would result in an absurdity if Q was in the numerator in the original equation. So this eq. was supposed to be wrong.yes
yes
No, divide both sides by Q ==> V = E / Q (you're taking a step back to the original equation)
And thus E = V * Q (take the same step forward)
I bet it was late when you typed that. I've been down that path before
I must admit, it took me a few minutes looking at this before I figured out where the error was.
I guess I did not make it clear. I was showing how it would result in an absurdity if Q was in the numerator in the original equation. So this eq. was supposed to be wrong.
Bob
one more thing, only alternating magnetic fields induce electric fields and vice versa...
the equations that relate them are called Maxwell's equations.
Electric fields are not the voltage...and magnet's do not allow charge to flow more easily...only super conducting magnets do and they have to be at close to zero kelvin to do that....and only DC currents can super conduct, there's no super conducting radios
unfortunately....
Hey you guys are getting me more confused over the issue :-D
Anyway I am still slowly grasping the idea that "charge" does not in itself contain any definition of energy and is dependent upon an external clarification of the quantized energy (in joules) contained "per charge" (which again is confusing since the charge itself is also quantized into discrete units called Coulombs).
I understand that the quantization of energy (in joules) and charge (in coulombs) are somewhat arbitrary
But it just is confusing to me that we do not have energy inherent in charge.
because, as in the example above, without voltage we cannot relate the two. We have left over units of (in this case) kg, metres, and time. If you look at those leftover units, you'll see mass and distance in the numerator. These tell us that energy is involved (since energy is mass times distance) and the presence of time in the denominator tells us that there is something to do with a rate.If we have a certain amount of "things" that have a certain amount of "elementary charge" surely there is inherent potential energy in that collection of charged things? Why must we additionally introduce energy into the system, in order to obtain voltage?
I understand that the quantization of energy (in joules) and charge (in coulombs) are somewhat arbitrary, for human mathematics (of course, they also follow natural physical relationship with each other).
But it just is confusing to me that we do not have energy inherent in charge.
If we have a certain amount of "things" that have a certain amount of "elementary charge" surely there is inherent potential energy in that collection of charged things? Why must we additionally introduce energy into the system, in order to obtain voltage?
_______
| |
_-_ |
| |
| ____ _|
--->----
| |
^ v
---<---
Again let me ponder all this in detail for a bit
voltage tells us how much power we can deliver at a given current (recall P = V*I).
We know that the coulomb is the unit of charge that is represented by 1 A for 1s, so we can change P = V * I to P = V * (Q/t).
And wasn't Power measured in J/s?. So now we have e/t = VQ/t.
But both of those /t's cancel out, so we are left with e = VQ which is where we started.